Board my train of thought for a moment and let’s let the Bible explain itself.
Let’s use Logic
John 1:1 in the Beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was (a) God.
So Let’s go back to the beginning.
Genesis 1:1 in the beginning God created the heavens and the Earth.
Exactly how did God do that?
For example: Genesis 1:3 and God said “let there be light” and there was light.
Simple. God created when God “said.”
But wait. Go back and read on from John 1:1 “all things came into existence through him and apart from him not one thing came into existence. (This is still talking about the Word who we know is Jesus)
Hmm. But Genesis said God created.
Isaiah 44:24 says Jehovah made everything. He says “I stretched out the heavens by myself! Who was with me?”
Well? Who WAS with him? There has to be someone because in Gen 1:26 God said “let us make man in OUR image”
And then it says in vs 27 that God went on to make man in HIS image. (going from “us” plural, to singular)
Col 1:6 informs us that by Jesus all things were made and Heb 1:2 says through him the universe was made.
In psalm 33:6 we see it’s by “the Word of Jehovah that the heavens were made and by the spirit of his mouth everything in them.
How can this all be true at once?
It makes sense to me that Jesus, being the Word of God, was the one speaking when Genesis says “God SAID let there be Light”
So in that sense we can see that God did create everything by speaking it into being. Jesus WAS the word he spoke. When God spoke, Jesus Spoke. When God said let us make man in our image he was speaking to Jesus who is the image of God and who shares his likeness. When Jesus spoke the world into being, God did create it all alone. Because the word was with God. And the Word WAS God.
Hebrews 1:10-11 (vs 8 indicates we are talking about the son of God) at the beginning oh Lord you laid the foundations of the earth and the heavens are the work of your hands. They will perish but you remain…
This is a quote from psalm 102 where the same thing is said of God.
Last I want to point something out about The translation of John 1:1.
Thousands of people have contributed to the translating work of Bibles for centuries. Of all of the translations that I know of and have heard of other than the NWT I only know of one translation that translates this verse “a god” rather than “God”
This translation is “The New Testament” by Johannes Greber. Greber was a catholic priest initially, but became involved in spiritism. His wife was a medium and could channel demonic spirits. It was through one of these spirits being channeled by his wife that he translated this version of the New Testament. Did you know the watchtower knows this? But still they agree with his demon-translated version of the Bible that disagrees with every other translation about who Jesus is.
Look it up.
(The following is a bunny trail)
A visit to JW org will point out the Sahidic Coptic text as a proof that the article should be present. One would think these sahidic Coptic people must also believe Jesus was a god, rather than The God. I dug around a little about the sahidic Coptic text and found this verse in Jude.
Jude 1:5 …the Lord, after saving the people out of the land of Egypt, he destroyed those who did not believe.
This is referring to Jehovah, right?
Well the Sahidic Coptic text doesn’t say Lord. It says “Jesus”
So do 8 other translations I could quickly find on Bible Hub.
My point? Even if the Coptics did put an article in john 1:1 (a giant minority)…it did not keep them from believing that Jesus was God. (Obvious from the connection they make in Jude)